Solved Problems · Set 27

Transformers

Part 3 · AC Analysis — linear, ideal and autotransformers. Set 26 showed that perfect coupling gives every transformer ratio at once; this set relaxes that idealisation one term at a time and tests the result against real measurements.

Prof. Mithun Mondal 20 solved · 12 practice · 3 challenge GATE · ESE · University

Set 27 — Transformers

Set 26 ended by pushing the coupling coefficient to 1 and finding that every ideal-transformer property appeared at once. This set works in the opposite direction: it starts from the ideal and adds back leakage flux, magnetising current, winding resistance and core loss until what remains describes a real machine. Two simple measurements — one with the secondary open, one with it shorted — then determine every parameter of that model, and from those the efficiency, the regulation and the operating economics follow. A running example, a 50 kVA 2400/240 V unit, carries through most of the set so the numbers can be compared across problems.

Textbook Chapter 14 · 20 solved · 12 practice · 3 challenge · 12 MCQs

i Method Recap
  • The ideal transformer, with turns ratio \(a = N_1/N_2\):

    \[ \frac{\mathbf{V}_1}{\mathbf{V}_2} = a, \qquad \frac{\mathbf{I}_1}{\mathbf{I}_2} = \frac{1}{a}, \qquad \mathbf{Z}_{in} = a^2\mathbf{Z}_L \]
  • Referring: to move a secondary quantity to the primary side, multiply voltages by \(a\), divide currents by \(a\), and multiply impedances by \(a^2\).

  • The equivalent circuit adds four non-ideal effects:

    EffectElementPosition
    Winding resistance\(R_1\), \(R_2'\)Series
    Leakage flux (\(k<1\))\(X_1\), \(X_2'\)Series
    Core loss\(R_c\)Shunt
    Magnetising current\(X_m\)Shunt
  • The two tests:

    \[ \text{Open circuit} \to R_c, X_m, \ \text{core loss} \]
    \[ \text{Short circuit} \to R_{eq}, X_{eq}, \ \text{full-load copper loss} \]
  • Efficiency at a fraction \(x\) of full load:

    \[ \eta = \frac{xS\cos\theta}{xS\cos\theta + P_c + x^2P_{cu}} \]

    maximum when \(x^2P_{cu} = P_c\), i.e. \(x = \sqrt{P_c/P_{cu}}\).

  • Voltage regulation:

    \[ \text{reg} = \frac{|\mathbf{V}_1| - |\mathbf{V}_2'|}{|\mathbf{V}_2'|} \approx \frac{I\left(R_{eq}\cos\theta \pm X_{eq}\sin\theta\right)}{V} \]

    with \(+\) for lagging and \(-\) for leading loads.

  • Convention: RMS throughout, as from Set 23. Subscript 1 denotes the primary (HV here) and 2 the secondary; a prime denotes a quantity referred to the primary side.

VideoWalkthrough
Problem 1CoreThe Ideal Transformer

State the assumptions defining an ideal transformer, derive its three ratios, and verify them on a 2400/240 V unit feeding a 4 Ω load.

Solution

The four assumptions, each removing one real effect:

AssumptionRemoves
\(k = 1\)Leakage flux
\(L_1, L_2 \to \infty\)Magnetising current
Zero winding resistanceCopper loss
Lossless coreHysteresis and eddy-current loss

The voltage ratio, from Faraday's law applied to a common flux \(\phi\):

\[ v_1 = N_1\frac{d\phi}{dt}, \qquad v_2 = N_2\frac{d\phi}{dt} \]
\[ \frac{\mathbf{V}_1}{\mathbf{V}_2} = \frac{N_1}{N_2} = a \]

With \(k = 1\) the flux is genuinely common — every line links both windings — so the two voltages differ only by the turns count.

The current ratio, from the magnetomotive force. With \(L \to \infty\) the core needs no net mmf to carry the flux:

\[ N_1i_1 - N_2i_2 = \frac{\phi}{\mathcal{P}} \to 0 \]
\[ \frac{\mathbf{I}_1}{\mathbf{I}_2} = \frac{N_2}{N_1} = \frac{1}{a} \]

Note the two assumptions do different work: \(k = 1\) gives the voltage ratio, infinite inductance gives the current ratio.

Power is conserved exactly:

\[ \mathbf{V}_1\mathbf{I}_1^{*} = (a\mathbf{V}_2)\left(\frac{\mathbf{I}_2}{a}\right)^{*} = \mathbf{V}_2\mathbf{I}_2^{*} \]

Both \(P\) and \(Q\) pass through unchanged — an ideal transformer stores no energy and dissipates none.

The impedance ratio follows by dividing:

\[ \mathbf{Z}_{in} = \frac{\mathbf{V}_1}{\mathbf{I}_1} = \frac{a\mathbf{V}_2}{\mathbf{I}_2/a} = a^2\frac{\mathbf{V}_2}{\mathbf{I}_2} = a^2\mathbf{Z}_L \]

Verify on the numbers. With \(a = 2400/240 = 10\) and \(\mathbf{Z}_L = 4\ \Omega\) on the secondary:

QuantitySecondaryPrimary
Voltage240 V2400 V
Current60 A6 A
Power14 400 W14 400 W ✓
Impedance seen4 Ω400 Ω
\[ \mathbf{Z}_{in} = \frac{2400}{6} = 400\ \Omega = a^2\mathbf{Z}_L = 100(4)\;\checkmark \]

Note what the transformer does not change. The power factor is identical on both sides, since \(\mathbf{Z}_{in}\) is \(\mathbf{Z}_L\) multiplied by a real number. A transformer scales magnitudes; it never shifts phase.

Voltage up, current down, impedance up by the square — three consequences of two assumptions. The \(a^2\) is the one most often needed and most often forgotten: it is what makes a transformer a matching device (Problem 16), and what allows an entire secondary circuit to be redrawn on the primary side (Problem 2).
Answer\(\mathbf{V}_1/\mathbf{V}_2 = a\), \(\mathbf{I}_1/\mathbf{I}_2 = 1/a\), \(\mathbf{Z}_{in} = a^2\mathbf{Z}_L\); verified as 400 Ω from a 4 Ω load at \(a = 10\)
Problem 2CoreReferring Impedances

Explain how to refer a whole secondary circuit to the primary side, and apply it to impedances of \(4\), \((2+j3)\) and \((0.5-j1)\ \Omega\) at \(a = 10\).

Solution

The three rules, all following from Problem 1:

QuantitySecondary → PrimaryPrimary → Secondary
Voltage\(\times a\)\(\div a\)
Current\(\div a\)\(\times a\)
Impedance\(\times a^2\)\(\div a^2\)
PowerUnchangedUnchanged

The last row is the check: whatever else is done, referring must not alter any power.

Applying at \(a = 10\), so \(a^2 = 100\):

On the secondaryReferred to primaryCharacter
\(4\ \Omega\)\(400\ \Omega\)Resistive
\(2+j3\ \Omega\)\(200+j300\ \Omega\)Inductive
\(0.5-j1\ \Omega\)\(50-j100\ \Omega\)Capacitive

The angle never changes. Multiplying by the real number \(a^2\) scales the magnitude and leaves the phase alone — so an inductive load stays inductive. Contrast Set 26, Problem 13, where reflection through a mutual coupling inverted the sign of the reactance.

Why referring is worth doing. Once every secondary element is referred, the ideal transformer can be deleted from the diagram and what remains is an ordinary single-loop circuit:

\[ \mathbf{V}_1 = \mathbf{I}_1\left(R_1 + jX_1 + R_2' + jX_2' + \mathbf{Z}_L'\right) \]

Every technique of Parts 1 and 2 then applies without restriction — the same benefit the T-equivalent gave in Set 26, Problem 19.

A worked check on power. Take 60 A through the 4 Ω secondary load:

\[ \text{Actual: } P = (60)^2(4) = 14\,400\ \text{W} \]
\[ \text{Referred: } P = (6)^2(400) = 14\,400\ \text{W}\;\checkmark \]

The current is 10 times smaller and the resistance 100 times larger, so \(I^2R\) is unchanged. This is exactly why the exponent on \(a\) must be 2 and not 1.

Which side to refer to is a free choice, and worth making deliberately:

Refer toWhen
HV sideTests were done from HV; currents are small
LV sideThe load is specified there; voltages are small

Mixing the two within one calculation is the commonest error in transformer work, and it produces answers wrong by factors of \(a\) or \(a^2\) — large enough to notice, but only if the magnitude is sanity-checked.

Referring is a change of units, not a change of circuit. Nothing physical moves; the secondary quantities are simply re-expressed in primary-side terms so they can be added to primary-side quantities. The invariance of power is what guarantees the bookkeeping is honest.
AnswerMultiply impedances by \(a^2 = 100\): 400 Ω, \(200+j300\) Ω, \(50-j100\) Ω. Angles and powers are unchanged.
Problem 3Exam levelThe Linear Transformer

A 100 V source drives a coupled pair with \(R_1 = 5\), \(\omega L_1 = 40\), \(\omega M = 30\), \(R_2 = 10\), \(\omega L_2 = 50\ \Omega\) and a 20 Ω load. Find both currents, the power delivered, and verify the power balance.

Solution

A linear transformer is simply the coupled pair of Set 26 with an iron-free (or at least unsaturated) core, so \(L_1\), \(L_2\) and \(M\) are constants. No idealisation is applied at all.

\[ k = \frac{\omega M}{\sqrt{\omega L_1 \cdot \omega L_2}} = \frac{30}{\sqrt{2000}} = 0.671 \]

Loose coupling by transformer standards — an iron core would give 0.99 or better.

The two loop impedances:

\[ \mathbf{Z}_{11} = 5+j40\ \Omega, \qquad \mathbf{Z}_{22} = 10+j50+20 = 30+j50\ \Omega \]

The reflected impedance, from Set 26, Problem 13:

\[ \frac{(\omega M)^2}{\mathbf{Z}_{22}} = \frac{900}{30+j50} = \frac{900(30-j50)}{3400} = 7.94 - j13.24\ \Omega \]
\[ \mathbf{Z}_{in} = 5+j40+7.94-j13.24 = 12.94+j26.76 = 29.73\angle64.20°\ \Omega \]

The currents:

\[ \mathbf{I}_1 = \frac{100\angle0°}{29.73\angle64.20°} = 3.364\angle{-64.20°}\ \text{A} \]
\[ \mathbf{I}_2 = \frac{-j\omega M\,\mathbf{I}_1}{\mathbf{Z}_{22}} = 1.731\angle146.77°\ \text{A} \]

Power balance — the essential check:

WherePower
Delivered to the 20 Ω load\(|\mathbf{I}_2|^2(20) = 59.90\ \text{W}\)
Lost in \(R_1\)\(|\mathbf{I}_1|^2(5) = 56.57\ \text{W}\)
Lost in \(R_2\)\(|\mathbf{I}_2|^2(10) = 29.95\ \text{W}\)
Total146.42 W
Supplied, \(\operatorname{Re}(\mathbf{V}_1\mathbf{I}_1^{*})\)146.42 W ✓

The efficiency is poor:

\[ \eta = \frac{59.90}{146.42} = 40.9\% \]

More power is lost in the primary resistance than reaches the load. This is what loose coupling costs: at \(k = 0.671\) a large primary current is needed to induce a modest secondary one, and that current dissipates in \(R_1\) whether or not it does useful work.

Contrast with a power transformer, where \(k \approx 0.998\) and the winding resistances are a fraction of a percent of the reactances. Problem 9 shows the same calculation there giving 98% efficiency. The difference is entirely in the coupling and the resistance-to-reactance ratio, not in any change of principle.

The linear transformer needs no new theory at all — it is Set 26's coupled pair with a load, analysed by reflected impedance. What Problem 4 adds is the observation that as \(k \to 1\) and the inductances grow, this exact analysis collapses into the two-line ideal-transformer relations of Problem 1.
Answer\(\mathbf{I}_1 = 3.364\angle{-64.20°}\), \(\mathbf{I}_2 = 1.731\angle146.77°\ \text{A}\), \(P_L = 59.9\ \text{W}\), \(\eta = 40.9\%\)
Problem 4ChallengeFrom Linear to Ideal

Show that the linear transformer's exact input impedance reduces to \(a^2\mathbf{Z}_L\) in the limit \(k \to 1\), \(L \to \infty\), and identify which limit does which job.

Solution

Start from the exact result, with the winding resistances set to zero to isolate the effect of the two limits:

\[ \mathbf{Z}_{in} = j\omega L_1 + \frac{(\omega M)^2}{j\omega L_2 + \mathbf{Z}_L} \]

aApply \(k = 1\) first, so \(M = \sqrt{L_1L_2}\) and \(\omega M = \sqrt{\omega L_1 \cdot \omega L_2}\):

\[ \mathbf{Z}_{in} = j\omega L_1 + \frac{\omega^2L_1L_2}{j\omega L_2+\mathbf{Z}_L} \]

Combining over a common denominator:

\[ = \frac{j\omega L_1\left(j\omega L_2+\mathbf{Z}_L\right) + \omega^2L_1L_2}{j\omega L_2+\mathbf{Z}_L} = \frac{j\omega L_1\mathbf{Z}_L}{j\omega L_2+\mathbf{Z}_L} \]

The two \(\omega^2L_1L_2\) terms cancel exactly — this is what perfect coupling buys.

bNow let \(L_2 \to \infty\). Divide numerator and denominator by \(j\omega L_2\):

\[ \mathbf{Z}_{in} = \frac{L_1\mathbf{Z}_L/L_2}{1 + \mathbf{Z}_L/(j\omega L_2)} \;\xrightarrow{\ \omega L_2 \gg |\mathbf{Z}_L|\ }\; \frac{L_1}{L_2}\mathbf{Z}_L \]

and since \(L \propto N^2\):

\[ \frac{L_1}{L_2} = \left(\frac{N_1}{N_2}\right)^2 = a^2 \;\Longrightarrow\; \boxed{\;\mathbf{Z}_{in} = a^2\mathbf{Z}_L\;} \]

Which limit does which job:

LimitRemovesAchieves
\(k \to 1\)Leakage reactanceCancels the \(\omega^2L_1L_2\) terms; fixes the voltage ratio
\(L \to \infty\)Magnetising currentMakes \(j\omega L_2\) dominate; fixes the current ratio

They are independent. A transformer can have excellent coupling and still draw large magnetising current if its core is small, or huge inductance with poor coupling if the windings are separated.

How good is the approximation in practice? The neglected term is \(\mathbf{Z}_L/(j\omega L_2)\). For the running example's 50 kVA unit with \(X_m = 4482\ \Omega\) referred to HV and a full-load referred impedance of about \(2400/20.83 = 115\ \Omega\):

\[ \frac{|\mathbf{Z}_L|}{\omega L_2} \approx \frac{115}{4482} = 0.026 \]

A 2.6% correction — which is exactly the magnetising current as a fraction of load current, and Problem 6 confirms the figure independently.

The frequency dependence matters. \(\omega L_2 \gg |\mathbf{Z}_L|\) fails at low frequency, so the ideal model breaks down there — which is precisely the low-frequency roll-off of Problem 17, and why a 50 Hz transformer cannot be used at 5 Hz.

The ideal transformer is a limit, not an approximation to be assumed. Knowing which limit is being taken tells you when it fails: poor coupling breaks the voltage ratio, insufficient inductance breaks the current ratio, and low frequency breaks the second even in a well-built machine.
Answer\(k \to 1\) cancels the \(\omega^2L_1L_2\) terms leaving \(j\omega L_1\mathbf{Z}_L/(j\omega L_2+\mathbf{Z}_L)\); then \(\omega L_2 \gg |\mathbf{Z}_L|\) gives \(a^2\mathbf{Z}_L\)
Problem 5Exam levelThe Exact Equivalent Circuit

Build the exact equivalent circuit of a real transformer, identifying the physical origin of every element and where each belongs.

Solution

Restore the four assumptions one at a time, each adding one element:

Real effectElementSeries or shunt?Why
Winding resistance\(R_1\), \(R_2\)SeriesCarries the load current
Leakage flux\(X_1\), \(X_2\)SeriesProportional to its own winding's current
Magnetising current\(X_m\)ShuntFlows even with no load
Core loss\(R_c\)ShuntDepends on flux, hence on voltage

The series/shunt distinction is the important one, and it follows from what each effect depends on: load current or applied voltage.

Why leakage reactance is a series element. Leakage flux links one winding only, so it behaves as ordinary self-inductance carrying that winding's current:

\[ X_1 = \omega L_1(1-k), \quad\text{approximately} \]

As \(k \to 1\) the leakage reactances vanish, recovering Problem 4's first limit.

Why core loss is a shunt resistance. Hysteresis and eddy-current losses depend on the peak flux, and the flux is fixed by the applied voltage through Faraday's law:

\[ V \approx 4.44fN\phi_m \;\Longrightarrow\; \phi_m \propto \frac{V}{f} \]

So core loss is essentially constant at constant voltage and frequency, whatever the load — which is why it is modelled as a resistance across the supply and why Problem 12 counts it for all 24 hours.

The full circuit, referred to the primary:

\[ \mathbf{V}_1 = \mathbf{I}_1\left(R_1+jX_1\right) + \mathbf{E}_1 \]
\[ \mathbf{E}_1 = \mathbf{I}_2'\left(R_2'+jX_2'\right) + \mathbf{V}_2' \]
\[ \mathbf{I}_1 = \mathbf{I}_2' + \underbrace{\frac{\mathbf{E}_1}{R_c} + \frac{\mathbf{E}_1}{jX_m}}_{\mathbf{I}_0} \]

The shunt branch sits between the two series pairs, at the point where the induced emf \(\mathbf{E}_1\) appears.

Working the running example at full load, 0.8 pf lagging, with values from Problems 7 and 8:

QuantityValue
\(\mathbf{I}_2'\)\(20.83\angle{-36.87°}\ \text{A}\)
\(\mathbf{E}_1\)\(2423.2\angle0.15°\ \text{V}\)
\(\mathbf{I}_0\)\(0.546\angle{-81.62°}\ \text{A}\)
\(\mathbf{I}_1\)\(21.22\angle{-37.91°}\ \text{A}\)
\(\mathbf{V}_1\)\(2447.0\angle0.28°\ \text{V}\)

The no-load current \(\mathbf{I}_0\) is only 2.6% of the load current and lags by more than 80° — almost purely magnetising, with a small in-phase component supplying the core loss.

Note the asymmetry of the shunt branch. \(R_c\) is very large (31 kΩ referred to HV) while \(X_m\) is much smaller (4.5 kΩ), so \(\mathbf{I}_0\) is dominated by its magnetising component. A no-load power factor of 0.14 is typical.

Every element in the equivalent circuit corresponds to something physical that a designer can change. Thicker wire lowers \(R\), interleaved windings lower \(X\), better steel raises \(R_c\), and more core area raises \(X_m\). The circuit is not a curve fit but a summary of construction.
AnswerSeries \(R_1+jX_1\) and \(R_2'+jX_2'\) for winding resistance and leakage; shunt \(R_c \parallel jX_m\) for core loss and magnetising current
Problem 6Exam levelThe Approximate Circuit

The approximate equivalent circuit moves the shunt branch to the input terminals. Justify the approximation quantitatively for the running example, and state when it fails.

Solution

The simplification. Moving the shunt branch to the terminals means it sees \(\mathbf{V}_1\) rather than \(\mathbf{E}_1\), which allows the two series pairs to be combined:

\[ R_{eq} = R_1 + R_2', \qquad X_{eq} = X_1 + X_2' \]

The circuit becomes a single series impedance plus a shunt branch that no longer interacts with it — and the load calculation reduces to one loop.

The error introduced is the drop across \(R_1+jX_1\) caused by \(\mathbf{I}_0\) alone. Since \(\mathbf{I}_0\) is small, so is the error.

Quantify it on the running example. Comparing the two calculations at full load, 0.8 pf lagging:

QuantityExact circuitApproximateDifference
\(|\mathbf{V}_1|\)2447.02 V2446.48 V0.54 V
Regulation1.959%1.937%0.023 pp
\(|\mathbf{I}_0|/|\mathbf{I}_1|\)2.57%

A discrepancy of 0.023 percentage points in a regulation of about 2% — around 1% relative error, far inside the tolerance of the test data itself.

Why the error is second-order. The approximation misplaces a current of 2.6% of full load, and that current then flows through only half the series impedance. Two small factors multiply:

\[ \text{error} \sim \left(\frac{I_0}{I_1}\right) \times \left(\frac{|Z_1|}{|Z_{eq}|}\right) \approx (0.026)(0.5) \approx 1.3\%\ \text{of the drop} \]

and the drop is itself only 2% of the voltage, so the effect on \(V_1\) is a few hundredths of a percent.

When it fails:

SituationWhy the approximation breaks
Very light load\(\mathbf{I}_0\) is comparable to \(\mathbf{I}_2'\)
Small transformers\(\mathbf{I}_0\) can reach 10% of rated current
Air-cored or gapped coresLarge magnetising current
Low frequency\(X_m\) falls, so \(\mathbf{I}_0\) rises

For large power transformers at or near rated load — the case that matters commercially — the approximation is excellent, which is why it is universal in practice.

A further simplification for regulation. Since the shunt branch is now across the supply, it affects neither the load current nor the series drop, so it can be ignored entirely for regulation calculations:

\[ \mathbf{V}_1 = \mathbf{V}_2' + \mathbf{I}_2'\left(R_{eq}+jX_{eq}\right) \]

This is the form used in Problem 11. The shunt branch is still needed for efficiency, since it carries the core loss.

The approximation is justified by the smallness of \(\mathbf{I}_0\), and the short-circuit test measures exactly the combination it produces. The two fit together: the test gives \(R_{eq}\) and \(X_{eq}\) directly, and cannot separate \(R_1\) from \(R_2'\) anyway — so the approximate circuit uses precisely the information the measurement can supply, and no more.
AnswerThe error is 0.023 percentage points in regulation, since \(\mathbf{I}_0\) is 2.57% of load current and passes through half the series impedance. It fails at light load and for small or low-frequency transformers.
Problem 7CoreThe Open-Circuit Test

An open-circuit test on the LV side of a 50 kVA, 2400/240 V transformer gives 240 V, 5.41 A, 186 W. Find the core loss, the no-load power factor, and \(R_c\) and \(X_m\).

Solution

What the test does. With the secondary open, no load current flows, so the only current is \(\mathbf{I}_0\) through the shunt branch. The series elements carry so little current that their drop is negligible:

\[ \text{Wattmeter reading} = \text{core loss} \]

The copper loss at 5.41 A is around \((5.41)^2(0.0143) = 0.4\ \text{W}\) against 186 W measured — 0.2%, entirely negligible.

Why the test is done on the LV side. Full rated voltage must be applied so the flux — and hence the core loss — is normal. Applying 240 V is safer and needs no high-voltage supply, while the current drawn is modest.

The no-load power factor:

\[ \cos\theta_0 = \frac{P_{oc}}{V_{oc}I_{oc}} = \frac{186}{(240)(5.41)} = 0.1433 \]
\[ \theta_0 = 81.76° \ \text{lagging} \]

Very poor, as expected — the no-load current is almost entirely magnetising, and a transformer sitting energised with no load is a nearly pure inductive burden on the supply.

Resolve the current into components:

\[ I_c = I_{oc}\cos\theta_0 = 5.41(0.1433) = 0.775\ \text{A} \ \text{(core-loss component)} \]
\[ I_m = I_{oc}\sin\theta_0 = 5.41(0.9897) = 5.354\ \text{A} \ \text{(magnetising)} \]

The shunt parameters, on the LV side:

\[ R_c = \frac{V_{oc}}{I_c} = \frac{240}{0.775} = 309.7\ \Omega \]
\[ X_m = \frac{V_{oc}}{I_m} = \frac{240}{5.354} = 44.8\ \Omega \]

Check \(R_c\) independently:

\[ R_c = \frac{V_{oc}^2}{P_{oc}} = \frac{57\,600}{186} = 309.7\ \Omega\;\checkmark \]

The second route is quicker and needs no power factor — worth preferring.

Refer to the HV side for use with the short-circuit data, multiplying by \(a^2 = 100\):

\[ R_c' = 30\,970\ \Omega, \qquad X_m' = 4482\ \Omega \]

Both very large compared with the series impedance of about 2.3 Ω found in Problem 8 — a ratio of over 1000:1, which is the quantitative justification for Problem 6's approximation.

The open-circuit test measures the voltage-dependent losses. Because core loss depends on flux and flux on \(V/f\), the 186 W measured here is what the transformer dissipates whenever it is energised — at no load, at full load, and at three o'clock in the morning. Problem 12 shows what that costs.
AnswerCore loss 186 W, \(\cos\theta_0 = 0.143\), \(R_c = 309.7\ \Omega\) and \(X_m = 44.8\ \Omega\) on LV (30 970 and 4482 Ω referred to HV)
Problem 8CoreThe Short-Circuit Test

A short-circuit test on the HV side of the same transformer gives 48 V, 20.8 A, 617 W. Find \(R_{eq}\), \(X_{eq}\) and the full-load copper loss.

Solution

What the test does. With the secondary shorted, rated current flows at a small applied voltage — here 48 V, only 2% of rated. The flux is therefore about 2% of normal and the core loss, which goes roughly as flux squared, is negligible:

\[ \text{Wattmeter reading} = \text{copper loss at the test current} \]

Core loss at 2% flux would be around \((0.02)^2(186) = 0.07\ \text{W}\) against 617 W measured.

Why the test is done on the HV side. Rated current must flow, and the HV winding's rated current is the smaller one:

\[ I_{HV} = \frac{50\,000}{2400} = 20.83\ \text{A} \qquad\text{versus}\qquad I_{LV} = 208.3\ \text{A} \]

Supplying 20.8 A at 48 V is easy; 208 A at 4.8 V needs heavy cabling. The two tests are done on opposite sides for complementary reasons — one needs full voltage, the other full current.

The equivalent impedance:

\[ Z_{eq} = \frac{V_{sc}}{I_{sc}} = \frac{48}{20.8} = 2.308\ \Omega \]
\[ R_{eq} = \frac{P_{sc}}{I_{sc}^2} = \frac{617}{432.6} = 1.426\ \Omega \]
\[ X_{eq} = \sqrt{Z_{eq}^2 - R_{eq}^2} = \sqrt{5.325-2.034} = 1.814\ \Omega \]

All referred to the HV side, because that is where the test was made. Dividing by 100 gives 0.01426 and 0.01814 Ω on the LV side.

The full-load copper loss. The test was made at essentially rated current (20.8 against 20.83 A), so

\[ P_{cu,\text{FL}} = 617\ \text{W} \]

Had the test been at some other current, scaling by the square would be needed: \(P_{cu} = P_{sc}(I_{FL}/I_{sc})^2\).

What the test cannot give. It measures \(R_1+R_2'\) and \(X_1+X_2'\) as sums, and cannot separate them. For the approximate circuit this does not matter; where a split is needed, the usual assumption is

\[ R_1 = R_2' = \tfrac12R_{eq}, \qquad X_1 = X_2' = \tfrac12X_{eq} \]

reasonable for a well-designed transformer with balanced windings, and the basis of the exact calculation in Problem 5.

The two tests together give a complete model from two measurements:

TestConditionsYields
Open circuitRated voltage, no load\(P_c\), \(R_c\), \(X_m\)
Short circuitRated current, low voltage\(P_{cu}\), \(R_{eq}\), \(X_{eq}\)

Neither test delivers appreciable power — the open-circuit test draws 186 W and the short-circuit 617 W from a 50 kVA machine. A complete characterisation costs about 1.6% of rated power.

The short-circuit test measures the current-dependent losses, exactly complementing the open-circuit test's voltage-dependent ones. That separation is what makes the efficiency formula of Problem 9 possible, and it is the reason both tests are needed and neither alone suffices.
Answer\(Z_{eq} = 2.308\), \(R_{eq} = 1.426\), \(X_{eq} = 1.814\ \Omega\) on HV; full-load copper loss 617 W
Problem 9CoreEfficiency at Any Load

Using the test results, find the efficiency of the 50 kVA transformer at full load and at half load, both at 0.8 power factor lagging.

Solution

The general formula. At a fraction \(x\) of rated kVA:

\[ \eta = \frac{xS\cos\theta}{xS\cos\theta + P_c + x^2P_{cu}} \]

Note the two losses scale differently: core loss is constant, copper loss goes as \(x^2\). That difference is the whole content of Problem 10.

aFull load (\(x = 1\)):

\[ P_{out} = (50\,000)(0.8) = 40\,000\ \text{W} \]
\[ \text{losses} = 186 + 617 = 803\ \text{W} \]
\[ \eta = \frac{40\,000}{40\,803} = 98.03\% \]

bHalf load (\(x = 0.5\)):

\[ P_{out} = 20\,000\ \text{W} \]
\[ \text{losses} = 186 + (0.25)(617) = 186 + 154 = 340\ \text{W} \]
\[ \eta = \frac{20\,000}{20\,340} = 98.33\% \]

Higher at half load than at full load. This is not a paradox — halving the load quarters the copper loss while the output only halves, so the loss-to-output ratio improves.

The efficiency curve:

LoadOutput (kW)Core (W)Copper (W)\(\eta\)
25%101863997.80%
50%2018615498.33%
54.9%22.018618698.33%
75%3018634798.25%
100%4018661798.03%

A flat maximum near 55% of full load — Problem 10 locates it exactly.

Power factor matters too. At unity power factor and full load:

\[ \eta = \frac{50\,000}{50\,803} = 98.42\% \]

Better, because the same current delivers more real power while producing identical losses. Efficiency depends on the power factor even though the losses do not — the losses depend on current, the output on current times power factor.

Why efficiency is not measured directly. Measuring 98% efficiency by weighing input against output would require both wattmeters accurate to better than 0.1% — difficult and expensive. Measuring the losses instead needs only ordinary accuracy on two small readings, because a 1% error in 803 W is 8 W, or 0.02% of the output.

The loss-separation method turns a hard measurement into two easy ones. This is why transformer efficiency is always quoted from open- and short-circuit data rather than from a direct input–output comparison, and why the same approach is standard for machines of every kind.
Answer\(\eta = 98.03\%\) at full load and \(98.33\%\) at half load, both at 0.8 pf lagging
Problem 10ChallengeMaximum Efficiency

Prove that efficiency is maximum when the copper loss equals the core loss, find the load at which this occurs for the running example, and explain how designers exploit it.

Solution

Write the efficiency and differentiate. Dividing through by \(x\):

\[ \eta = \frac{S\cos\theta}{S\cos\theta + \dfrac{P_c}{x} + xP_{cu}} \]

The numerator is now constant, so \(\eta\) is maximised by minimising the bracketed term in the denominator.

Minimise:

\[ \frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{P_c}{x} + xP_{cu}\right) = -\frac{P_c}{x^2} + P_{cu} = 0 \]
\[ x^2P_{cu} = P_c \;\Longrightarrow\; \boxed{\;\text{copper loss} = \text{core loss}\;} \]
\[ x = \sqrt{\frac{P_c}{P_{cu}}} \]

An alternative proof by AM–GM, requiring no calculus. For positive quantities,

\[ \frac{P_c}{x} + xP_{cu} \ge 2\sqrt{P_cP_{cu}} \]

with equality exactly when the two terms are equal. The minimum total loss is therefore \(2\sqrt{P_cP_{cu}}\), which for the running example is \(2\sqrt{(186)(617)} = 678\ \text{W}\) per unit of \(x\) — a neat closed form.

For the running example:

\[ x = \sqrt{\frac{186}{617}} = \sqrt{0.3015} = 0.549 \]

so maximum efficiency occurs at 54.9% of full load:

\[ P_{out} = (0.549)(50\,000)(0.8) = 21\,962\ \text{W} \]
\[ \text{losses} = 186 + 186 = 372\ \text{W} \]
\[ \eta_{\max} = \frac{21\,962}{22\,334} = 98.33\% \]

The maximum is very flat. Comparing with Problem 9's table:

Load\(\eta\)Below peak
50%98.328%0.006 pp
54.9%98.334%
75%98.253%0.081 pp
100%98.032%0.302 pp

Missing the optimum by 20 percentage points of load costs less than a tenth of a percentage point of efficiency — so the design target need not be precise.

How designers use it. The ratio \(P_c/P_{cu}\) is a design choice, set by the relative amounts of iron and copper:

ApplicationTypical dutyDesign for peak at
Distribution transformerEnergised 24 h, lightly loaded40–60% of full load
Power transformerNear full load continuously80–100%
Welding transformerIntermittent, heavyNear full load

A distribution transformer is deliberately given low core loss relative to copper loss, so its efficiency peak sits at the light load it actually spends most of its life carrying — which Problem 12 evaluates properly.

Efficiency peaks where the variable loss equals the fixed loss — a result that recurs throughout engineering, from transmission-line design to motor selection. Its usefulness lies less in locating the peak than in the design freedom it exposes: choosing the loss ratio chooses the operating point at which the machine is best.
AnswerMaximum when \(x^2P_{cu} = P_c\), i.e. \(x = 0.549\) here, giving \(\eta_{\max} = 98.33\%\). The peak is very flat.
Problem 11Exam levelVoltage Regulation

Find the voltage regulation of the 50 kVA transformer at full load for 0.8 lagging and 0.8 leading power factors, and explain the difference.

Solution

Definition. Regulation is the rise in secondary voltage when the load is removed, as a fraction of the full-load value:

\[ \text{reg} = \frac{|\mathbf{V}_{2,\text{no load}}| - |\mathbf{V}_{2,\text{full load}}|}{|\mathbf{V}_{2,\text{full load}}|} \]

Working referred to the primary, the no-load secondary voltage is just \(|\mathbf{V}_1|\), since with no current there is no series drop.

a0.8 lagging. Take \(\mathbf{V}_2' = 2400\angle0°\) as reference:

\[ \mathbf{I} = 20.83\angle{-36.87°}\ \text{A} \]
\[ \mathbf{V}_1 = 2400 + (20.83\angle{-36.87°})(1.426+j1.814) = 2446.5\angle0.29° \]
\[ \text{reg} = \frac{2446.5-2400}{2400} = 1.937\% \]

The approximate formula avoids the complex arithmetic:

\[ \text{reg} \approx \frac{I\left(R_{eq}\cos\theta + X_{eq}\sin\theta\right)}{V} \]
\[ = \frac{20.83\left[(1.426)(0.8)+(1.814)(0.6)\right]}{2400} = \frac{46.45}{2400} = 1.935\% \]

Agreeing to three figures. The approximation drops the quadrature component of the drop, which contributes only at second order.

b0.8 leading. The current now leads, so \(\sin\theta\) changes sign:

\[ \text{reg} \approx \frac{20.83\left[(1.426)(0.8)-(1.814)(0.6)\right]}{2400} = \frac{1.09}{2400} = 0.045\% \]

and exactly:

\[ \mathbf{V}_1 = 2400 + (20.83\angle{+36.87°})(1.426+j1.814) \;\Longrightarrow\; \text{reg} = 0.066\% \]

Essentially zero. Here the approximate formula is relatively poorer — 0.045% against 0.066% — because the two terms nearly cancel and the neglected quadrature part is no longer small by comparison. Cancellation amplifies relative error, exactly as in Set 26, Challenge C2.

Why leading loads improve regulation:

Power factorRegulationEffect on \(V_2\)
0.8 lagging+1.94%Falls with load
Unity+1.25%Falls slightly
0.8 leading+0.07%Almost constant
0.6 leading−0.50%Rises with load

A sufficiently capacitive load gives negative regulation — the secondary voltage is higher on load than off it. The load's leading current produces a drop across \(X_{eq}\) that partly cancels rather than adds.

Why regulation matters. Consumers expect voltage within a few percent of nominal regardless of demand. A regulation of 2% means the voltage sags by 2% between no load and full load, which is tolerable; 10% would not be. Tap changers exist to correct the residual.

Which term dominates depends on the machine's \(X/R\) ratio. Here \(X_{eq}/R_{eq} = 1.27\), so at 0.8 lagging the two contributions are nearly equal — 23.8 V resistive against 22.7 V reactive. Large power transformers have \(X/R\) of 10 to 30, and there the reactance dominates completely, which is why leakage reactance is the parameter designers of big machines work hardest to control.
Answer1.94% at 0.8 lagging, 0.07% at 0.8 leading; a strongly capacitive load gives negative regulation
Problem 12ChallengeAll-Day Efficiency

The 50 kVA transformer serves a daily cycle: 6 h no load, 6 h at 25% (0.9 pf), 6 h at 60% (0.9 pf), 6 h at full load (0.8 pf). Find the all-day efficiency and explain why it differs from the ordinary figure.

Solution

Why a different measure is needed. A distribution transformer is energised continuously but loaded only intermittently. Ordinary efficiency answers "how well does it work now"; the utility needs "how much energy did it waste today":

\[ \eta_{\text{all-day}} = \frac{\text{energy output over 24 h}}{\text{energy output} + \text{energy lost}} \]

The key asymmetry:

LossPresent whenHours per day
Core lossEnergised24
Copper lossLoadedOnly when current flows

Tabulate the cycle:

PeriodLoadpfOutput (kWh)Copper (kWh)
6 h000
6 h25%0.967.50.231
6 h60%0.9162.01.333
6 h100%0.8240.03.702
Total469.55.266

Copper energy for each period is \(x^2P_{cu} \times \text{hours}\) — for instance \((0.25)^2(617)(6)/1000 = 0.231\ \text{kWh}\).

The core loss runs all day:

\[ E_{\text{core}} = \frac{(186)(24)}{1000} = 4.464\ \text{kWh} \]

Comparable with the entire day's copper loss of 5.27 kWh, despite the copper loss being 3.3 times larger at full load.

The all-day efficiency:

\[ \eta_{\text{all-day}} = \frac{469.5}{469.5+4.464+5.266} = \frac{469.5}{479.23} = 97.97\% \]

Slightly below the full-load figure of 98.03%, and well below the 98.33% peak — because six hours of energised idling produce loss with no output at all.

The design consequence. To maximise all-day efficiency, core loss must be reduced even at the cost of higher copper loss:

Design changeEffect
Better core steel (grain-oriented, amorphous)Lower \(P_c\) — the direct route
Lower flux densityLower \(P_c\), but more iron and cost
Thinner laminationsLower eddy-current loss

Amorphous-core distribution transformers cut core loss by 70% or more and are justified purely by this calculation over a 30-year life, despite costing more to build.

A useful check. If the transformer were de-energised during the idle six hours, the core energy would fall to 3.35 kWh and the all-day efficiency rise to 98.19%. Utilities do not do this — the switching cost and supply-continuity requirement outweigh 1.1 kWh — but the comparison shows exactly what idling costs.

All-day efficiency is a statement about energy, not power, and it rewards a different design. A transformer optimised for peak efficiency at full load is the wrong machine for a distribution network, where it spends most of its life lightly loaded and all of its life energised. The measure and the design must match the duty.
Answer469.5 kWh out against 4.46 kWh core plus 5.27 kWh copper, giving \(\eta_{\text{all-day}} = 97.97\%\)
Problem 13Exam levelThe Per-Unit System

Express the running example's parameters in per unit, and show why the per-unit impedance is the same whichever side it is computed on.

Solution

Define the bases. Choose the rating as base power and the nominal voltage as base voltage; everything else follows:

\[ S_b = 50\ \text{kVA}, \qquad V_b = 2400\ \text{V (HV side)} \]
\[ I_b = \frac{S_b}{V_b} = 20.83\ \text{A}, \qquad Z_b = \frac{V_b^2}{S_b} = \frac{2400^2}{50\,000} = 115.2\ \Omega \]

Convert the series parameters:

\[ R_{pu} = \frac{1.426}{115.2} = 0.01238, \qquad X_{pu} = \frac{1.814}{115.2} = 0.01575 \]
\[ Z_{pu} = \frac{2.308}{115.2} = 0.02003 \]

Often quoted as a percentage: this is a 2% impedance transformer, a figure that appears on every nameplate.

Now compute on the LV side. The base changes:

\[ Z_b = \frac{240^2}{50\,000} = 1.152\ \Omega \]

and the referred impedance changes by the same factor of \(a^2\):

\[ R_{eq,LV} = \frac{1.426}{100} = 0.01426\ \Omega \;\Longrightarrow\; R_{pu} = \frac{0.01426}{1.152} = 0.01238\;\checkmark \]

Identical. Both the impedance and the base scale by \(a^2\), so their ratio is invariant — which is the whole point of the system.

What per unit buys:

AdvantageDetail
Transformers vanishNo referring needed — the ratio is 1:1 in per unit
Values are comparableAll power transformers have \(Z_{pu}\) of 0.03–0.10
Errors are visibleA per-unit impedance of 5 is obviously wrong
Three-phase simplification\(\sqrt3\) factors disappear from the formulas

The first is decisive for power-system analysis: a network with a dozen transformers becomes a single per-unit circuit with no ratio boxes at all.

Reading physical quantities from per unit. The short-circuit test voltage was \(48/2400 = 0.02\) pu, which equals \(Z_{pu}\) — as it must, since the test drove 1.0 pu current through \(Z_{pu}\). Similarly:

\[ \text{Short-circuit current} = \frac{1.0}{Z_{pu}} = \frac{1}{0.02} = 50\ \text{pu} \]

50 times rated current on a bolted fault at the terminals — which is what protective devices must interrupt, and why the per-unit impedance is the single most important number on the nameplate.

The losses in per unit read directly as fractions:

\[ P_{c,pu} = \frac{186}{50\,000} = 0.00372, \qquad P_{cu,pu} = \frac{617}{50\,000} = 0.01234 \]

And note \(P_{cu,pu} = R_{pu}\) exactly — because at 1.0 pu current, \(I^2R\) in per unit is just \(R_{pu}\). A satisfying consistency check.

Per unit is a change of units chosen so that transformers become invisible. That is worth more than the arithmetic saving: it means a power system's per-unit diagram has the same topology as its single-line diagram, with no ratio to track and no side to refer to.
Answer\(R_{pu} = 0.0124\), \(X_{pu} = 0.0158\), \(Z_{pu} = 0.0200\) — identical from either side, since impedance and base both scale by \(a^2\)
Problem 14ChallengeThe Autotransformer

The 50 kVA, 2400/240 V two-winding transformer is reconnected as an autotransformer supplying 2400 V from 2640 V. Find its new rating and explain where the increase comes from.

Solution

The connection. The two windings are joined in series so the 240 V winding adds to the 2400 V winding:

\[ V_{\text{in}} = 2400+240 = 2640\ \text{V}, \qquad V_{\text{out}} = 2400\ \text{V} \]

The 240 V winding is now the series winding and the 2400 V winding the common winding, shared between input and output.

The windings keep their original ratings — the same copper, the same insulation, the same permissible current:

\[ I_{\text{series winding}} = \frac{50\,000}{240} = 208.3\ \text{A} \]
\[ I_{\text{common winding}} = \frac{50\,000}{2400} = 20.83\ \text{A} \]

Trace the currents. The input current flows through the series winding, so it is limited to 208.3 A. At the output node the common winding's current adds:

\[ I_{\text{out}} = 208.3 + 20.83 = 229.2\ \text{A} \]

The new rating:

\[ S_{\text{auto}} = (2400)(229.2) = 550\ \text{kVA} \]
\[ \text{check input: } (2640)(208.3) = 550\ \text{kVA}\;\checkmark \]
\[ \boxed{\;50\ \text{kVA} \longrightarrow 550\ \text{kVA}\;} \]

An elevenfold increase from the identical windings, with no change to the copper or the core.

The general formula. With \(a = V_{\text{in}}/V_{\text{out}}\):

\[ \frac{S_{\text{auto}}}{S_{\text{two-winding}}} = \frac{1}{1-1/a} = \frac{a}{a-1} \]
\[ a = \frac{2640}{2400} = 1.1 \;\Longrightarrow\; \frac{1.1}{0.1} = 11\;\checkmark \]

The advantage grows without limit as \(a \to 1\). Autotransformers are therefore used for small voltage changes — 11 kV to 10 kV, or 400 kV to 275 kV — and are pointless for large ratios, where \(a/(a-1) \to 1\).

Efficiency improves dramatically too. The losses are unchanged at 803 W, since the windings carry the same currents:

\[ \eta_{\text{two-winding}} = \frac{40\,000}{40\,803} = 98.03\% \]
\[ \eta_{\text{auto}} = \frac{440\,000}{440\,803} = 99.82\% \]

The same losses spread over eleven times the throughput. Losses fall from 2.0% to 0.18% of the rating.

The saving is real, not a trick of bookkeeping — but it is bought by abandoning electrical isolation. The output is now galvanically connected to the input, which Problem 15 shows to be a serious safety consideration and the reason autotransformers are barred from many applications despite their obvious economy.
Answer550 kVA — eleven times the two-winding rating, since \(a/(a-1) = 1.1/0.1 = 11\). Efficiency rises from 98.03% to 99.82%.
Problem 15ChallengeConduction and Induction

For the autotransformer of Problem 14, separate the power transferred by transformer action from that conducted directly, and set out the safety consequence.

Solution

The two paths. An autotransformer moves power in two quite different ways:

PathMechanism
InductiveThrough the magnetic circuit, as in a two-winding transformer
ConductiveStraight along the metal, because input and output share the common winding

Only the first is limited by the core and windings; the second is limited only by the conductor's current rating.

The inductive share is what the windings actually transform — the original two-winding rating:

\[ S_{\text{inductive}} = 50\ \text{kVA} \]

The conductive share is the remainder:

\[ S_{\text{conductive}} = 550 - 50 = 500\ \text{kVA} \]
\[ \text{fraction conducted} = \frac{500}{550} = 90.9\% \]

Over 90% of the power never enters the magnetic circuit at all. It simply flows through the shared winding from input to output, and that is precisely why so little iron and copper are needed.

The general split:

\[ \frac{S_{\text{conductive}}}{S_{\text{total}}} = \frac{1}{a}, \qquad \frac{S_{\text{inductive}}}{S_{\text{total}}} = 1-\frac{1}{a} \]
\[ \text{here } \frac{1}{1.1} = 0.909\;\checkmark \]

Confirming that the closer \(a\) is to 1, the more power is conducted and the greater the advantage — the same conclusion as Problem 14 from the other direction.

The safety consequence. Because the windings share a connection, there is no isolation:

FaultTwo-winding transformerAutotransformer
Common winding open-circuitsSecondary de-energisedFull input voltage appears at the output
Primary fault to earthSecondary unaffectedSecondary reference shifts
HV surge on inputAttenuated by the couplingConducted directly through

The first row is the serious one. In the example, an open common winding would put 2640 V onto a circuit expecting 2400 V — and in a 240/120 V autotransformer, it puts the full 240 V onto a 120 V appliance.

Where autotransformers are used and avoided:

Used forAvoided for
Interconnecting transmission voltages (400/275 kV)Anything a person may touch
Motor starting (reduced voltage)Medical and laboratory supplies
Variable-voltage laboratory supplies (Variac)Where earthing systems differ
Tap changing within a windingLarge ratios, where the saving vanishes
The economy and the hazard have the same cause. Sharing a winding is what lets 90% of the power bypass the magnetic circuit, and it is also what removes the isolation. There is no way to have one without the other — which is why the choice between the two transformer types is made on safety grounds, not economic ones.
Answer50 kVA inductively and 500 kVA conductively — 90.9% conducted, equal to \(1/a\). The lack of isolation means an open common winding puts full input voltage on the output.
Problem 16Exam levelImpedance Matching

An amplifier with 5000 Ω output impedance drives an 8 Ω loudspeaker. Find the turns ratio for maximum power transfer and quantify the improvement over a direct connection.

Solution

The requirement. Maximum power transfer needs the load, as seen by the source, to equal the source resistance — Set 22, Problem 14. The transformer supplies the \(a^2\) of Problem 1:

\[ a^2Z_L = Z_s \;\Longrightarrow\; a = \sqrt{\frac{Z_s}{Z_L}} = \sqrt{\frac{5000}{8}} = \sqrt{625} = 25 \]
\[ \text{turns ratio } 25:1 \ \text{step-down} \]

Without the transformer. With a source emf of 100 V rms behind 5000 Ω:

\[ I = \frac{100}{5008} = 19.97\ \text{mA} \;\Longrightarrow\; P_L = (0.01997)^2(8) = 3.19\ \text{mW} \]

Almost all the power is lost inside the amplifier: the 8 Ω speaker is a near-short across a 5000 Ω source.

With the matching transformer:

\[ P_{\max} = \frac{V^2}{4R_s} = \frac{100^2}{20\,000} = 0.500\ \text{W} = 500\ \text{mW} \]
\[ \text{improvement} = \frac{500}{3.19} = 157\times \]

Over 20 dB — the difference between an inaudible signal and a usable one.

Check the secondary conditions. At the match the speaker sees:

\[ V_2 = \frac{V_1}{a} = \frac{50}{25} = 2\ \text{V}, \qquad I_2 = \frac{2}{8} = 0.25\ \text{A} \]
\[ P = (2)(0.25) = 0.5\ \text{W}\;\checkmark \]

Taking \(V_1 = 50\) V because half the source emf drops internally at the match.

Other common matches:

SourceLoadTurns ratio
5000 Ω8 Ω25.0 : 1
3200 Ω4 Ω28.3 : 1
600 Ω16 Ω6.1 : 1

Comparison with the L-network of Set 22, Challenge C1:

TransformerL-network
BandwidthWide — many octavesNarrow — one frequency
MatchesResistances only (real ratio)Any complex impedance
IsolationYesNo
Size and costLarge, expensiveTwo small components

The transformer's wide bandwidth is decisive for audio, where a signal spans ten octaves. The L-network's frequency dependence would make it useless there.

The efficiency caveat. Matching gives maximum power to the load, not maximum efficiency — half the power still goes in the source resistance, exactly as Set 22 established. That is acceptable in a signal circuit and unacceptable in a power system, which is why matching transformers appear in amplifiers and never in distribution networks.

The transformer is the only broadband impedance transformer available. Because \(a^2\) is a pure real number, independent of frequency, it scales impedances identically at every frequency inside its passband — something no network of inductors and capacitors can do. That passband is the subject of Problem 17.
Answer\(a = \sqrt{5000/8} = 25\), a 25:1 step-down; power to the speaker rises from 3.19 mW to 500 mW — a factor of 157
Problem 17ChallengeFrequency Response

An audio transformer has \(L_m = 10\ \text{H}\), total leakage \(L_l = 2\ \text{mH}\), in a 600 Ω circuit. Find the passband and explain what limits each end.

Solution

Two different elements limit the two ends, and both are ignored by the ideal model:

EndLimiting elementPositionBehaviour
Low frequencyMagnetising \(L_m\)Shunt\(X_m \to 0\), shorting the signal
High frequencyLeakage \(L_l\)Series\(X_l \to \infty\), blocking the signal

The low-frequency cut-off. The response falls 3 dB where the shunt reactance equals the circuit resistance:

\[ \omega_LL_m = R \;\Longrightarrow\; f_L = \frac{R}{2\pi L_m} = \frac{600}{2\pi(10)} = 9.55\ \text{Hz} \]

Below this the magnetising branch draws more current than the load, and the transformer stops transforming — the failure of the \(L \to \infty\) limit identified in Problem 4.

The high-frequency cut-off:

\[ \omega_HL_l = R \;\Longrightarrow\; f_H = \frac{R}{2\pi L_l} = \frac{600}{2\pi(0.002)} = 47.7\ \text{kHz} \]

Above this the leakage reactance dominates the series path — the failure of the \(k \to 1\) limit.

The bandwidth ratio has a memorable form:

\[ \frac{f_H}{f_L} = \frac{L_m}{L_l} = \frac{10}{0.002} = 5000 \]

The resistance cancels entirely. The bandwidth is set purely by the ratio of magnetising to leakage inductance — that is, by \(k\), since \(L_l \approx L_m(1-k^2)\). Here 5000:1 is about 12 octaves, comfortably covering the audio range of 20 Hz to 20 kHz.

What each end costs to improve:

To lower \(f_L\)To raise \(f_H\)
More turns, or better core steelInterleaved windings
Larger core cross-sectionThinner insulation
But: more turns increases leakage tooBut: increases winding capacitance

The two are in tension, which is why a wide-band audio transformer is a difficult and expensive component while a 50 Hz power transformer — needing no bandwidth at all — is cheap.

Winding capacitance, ignored above, eventually resonates with the leakage inductance:

\[ f_{\text{res}} = \frac{1}{2\pi\sqrt{L_lC}} \]

With \(C = 500\ \text{pF}\) this gives 159 kHz, well above \(f_H\) — so it produces a peak beyond the passband rather than inside it. In a poorly designed transformer the resonance can fall within the band and cause an audible peak.

The two idealisations of Problem 4 fail at opposite ends of the spectrum. Perfect coupling fails high, infinite inductance fails low, and what lies between is the passband. A transformer is therefore intrinsically a band-pass device — the ideal transformer of Problem 1 exists only in the middle of its own range.
Answer\(f_L = 9.55\ \text{Hz}\), \(f_H = 47.7\ \text{kHz}\); the ratio is \(L_m/L_l = 5000\), independent of the circuit resistance
Problem 18Exam levelThree-Phase Connections

Find the per-phase turns ratio needed for an 11 kV / 400 V three-phase transformer in each of the four standard connections, and compare their properties.

Solution

The turns ratio is set by phase voltages, not line voltages — which is where the \(\sqrt3\) factors of Set 24 enter:

\[ a = \frac{V_{ph,\text{pri}}}{V_{ph,\text{sec}}} \]
Connection\(V_{ph}\) primary\(V_{ph}\) secondaryTurns ratio
Yy (star–star)6351 V230.9 V27.5
Dd (delta–delta)11 000 V400 V27.5
Dy (delta–star)11 000 V230.9 V47.6
Yd (star–delta)6351 V400 V15.9

Yy and Dd give the same ratio, because both sides are treated alike. The mixed connections differ by \(\sqrt3\) in opposite directions — Dy needs a higher ratio, Yd a lower one.

Confirm one of them. For Dy, the primary winding sees the full line voltage while the secondary winding sees only the phase voltage:

\[ a = \frac{11\,000}{400/\sqrt3} = \frac{11\,000}{230.9} = 47.6\;\checkmark \]

A common error is to use \(11\,000/400 = 27.5\) for every connection. That is correct only for Yy and Dd.

The 30° phase shift. Mixed connections introduce a displacement between primary and secondary line voltages, because one side's line voltage leads its phase voltage by 30° and the other's does not — Set 24, Problem 3:

ConnectionPhase shiftVector group
Yy, DdYy0, Dd0
Dy, Yd±30°Dy11, Yd11 (or Dy1, Yd1)

The clock-number notation gives the shift in units of 30°: "11" means the secondary lags by 330°, equivalently leads by 30°. Transformers of different vector groups cannot be paralleled — the 30° difference would drive a large circulating current.

Choosing a connection:

ConnectionAdvantageDrawback
YyNeutral both sides; least insulationPoor with unbalanced loads; triplen-harmonic trouble
DdTriplen harmonics circulate harmlessly in the deltaNo neutral available
DyDelta traps harmonics; star gives an LV neutral30° shift
YdHV neutral for earthing; delta traps harmonics30° shift

Dy is the standard distribution connection — HV delta, LV star with a neutral brought out to serve single-phase customers. Set 24, Problem 16's triplen harmonics circulate in the delta winding and never reach the supply.

A rating note. Whichever connection is used, the three-phase rating is three times the per-phase rating, and the line current follows from

\[ S_{3\phi} = \sqrt3\,V_LI_L \]

so an 11 kV/400 V 500 kVA unit passes \(500\,000/(\sqrt3 \times 400) = 722\ \text{A}\) on the LV side regardless of connection.

The delta winding earns its place by trapping triplen harmonics. Set 24 showed that third-harmonic currents are in phase in all three lines; in a delta they circulate round the closed loop and never emerge. That single property, more than any voltage consideration, is why almost every distribution transformer has a delta somewhere in it.
AnswerYy and Dd: 27.5; Dy: 47.6; Yd: 15.9. Mixed connections also introduce a 30° shift, so vector groups must match before paralleling.
Problem 19ChallengeInrush Current

Explain why energising a transformer can draw many times its rated current, show that the flux can reach twice its normal peak, and describe the mitigations.

Solution

Start from Faraday's law. The flux is the integral of the applied voltage:

\[ \phi(t) = \frac{1}{N}\int v\,dt + \phi(0) \]

With \(v = V_m\sin\omega t\) applied from \(t = 0\):

\[ \phi(t) = \frac{V_m}{\omega N}\left(1 - \cos\omega t\right) + \phi(0) \]

Compare with the steady state, where the constant of integration has settled to zero:

\[ \phi_{ss}(t) = -\phi_m\cos\omega t, \qquad \phi_m = \frac{V_m}{\omega N} \]

The steady-state flux swings symmetrically between \(\pm\phi_m\). The switched-on flux does not — it starts at zero and must swing a full \(2\phi_m\) upward.

The worst case is switching at a voltage zero with residual flux of the opposing sign:

\[ \phi_{\max} = 2\phi_m + \phi_{\text{res}} \]

With typical residual flux of 0.1 to 0.2 of \(\phi_m\):

\[ \phi_{\max} \approx 2.1\text{–}2.2\,\phi_m \]

Over twice the normal peak flux. The best case — switching at a voltage peak — gives no offset at all, because the required flux at that instant is zero and matches the residual.

Why this produces enormous current. A transformer core is deliberately operated close to the knee of its magnetisation curve, for economy of iron. Doubling the flux drives it deep into saturation:

FluxCore stateMagnetising current
\(\phi_m\)Just below the knee2–5% of rated
\(1.5\phi_m\)SaturatingPerhaps 100%
\(2\phi_m\)Deeply saturated8–12× rated

In saturation the effective permeability collapses towards that of air, so \(L_m\) falls by orders of magnitude and the current is limited only by the winding resistance and leakage reactance.

How it decays. The offset is a transient, damped by the winding resistance with time constant \(L/R\). Because \(L\) is large and \(R\) small, the decay is slow:

\[ \text{typically } 0.1\text{–}1\ \text{s, or many tens of cycles} \]

Long enough to trip protection that cannot distinguish inrush from a genuine fault.

The mitigations:

MethodMechanism
Point-on-wave switchingClose at the voltage peak, where no offset is required
Pre-insertion resistorsLimit the first surge, then short them out
Second-harmonic restraintInrush is rich in 2nd harmonic; faults are not — so relays discriminate
Soft-start / NTC thermistorCommon in small equipment

The third is the standard protection solution, and it is a neat one: rather than avoiding the inrush, the relay identifies it by its harmonic signature and declines to trip.

Inrush is a consequence of flux continuity, not of any fault or defect. Flux cannot change instantaneously — the same principle as inductor current in Set 16 — so the flux waveform must start from whatever the core held, and the resulting offset persists until resistance removes it. Every transformer ever switched on has done this.
AnswerSwitching at a voltage zero forces \(\phi = \phi_m(1-\cos\omega t)\), peaking at \(2\phi_m\) plus residual. Deep saturation gives 8–12 times rated current, decaying over many cycles.
Problem 20ChallengeWhat a Transformer Is

Draw together what this set has established, and identify the question that Part 3's remaining sets must answer.

Solution

The structure of the subject. Everything followed from Set 26's coupled equations plus two limits, then the systematic removal of those limits:

StageModelProblems
ExactCoupled coils, \(L_1, L_2, M\)3 (linear transformer)
Idealised\(k \to 1\), \(L \to \infty\)1, 4
Re-realisedAdd \(R\), \(X_l\), \(R_c\), \(X_m\)5, 6
MeasuredTwo tests determine all four7, 8
AppliedEfficiency, regulation, economics9–13

The running example in one table:

QuantityValue
Rating50 kVA, 2400/240 V
\(R_{eq}\), \(X_{eq}\) (HV)1.43, 1.81 Ω
\(R_c\), \(X_m\) (HV)30 970, 4482 Ω
Core / copper loss186 / 617 W
Efficiency (FL, 0.8 pf)98.03%
Peak efficiency98.33% at 54.9% load
All-day efficiency97.97%
Regulation (0.8 lag)1.94%
Per-unit impedance0.0200

Nine derived quantities from two measurements — the economy of the loss-separation method.

The recurring theme is that each real effect appears where its cause dictates:

\[ \text{depends on current} \Rightarrow \text{series}; \qquad \text{depends on voltage} \Rightarrow \text{shunt} \]

That one rule places all four elements, explains why the two tests separate cleanly, and explains why core loss must be counted for 24 hours while copper loss is counted only when the transformer is working.

The standing limitation. Every calculation assumed a single frequency. Problem 17 was the first crack: a transformer is a band-pass device, its response falling away at both ends for reasons the single-frequency model cannot express. Problem 19 was the second: saturation makes the core non-linear, so a sinusoidal voltage produces a non-sinusoidal current.

What comes next. Both cracks point the same way — treat \(\omega\) as a variable:

SetTopicQuestion
28Transfer functions, Bode plotsHow does response vary with frequency?
29Resonance, \(Q\), bandwidthWhy are some frequencies special?
30Filters and scalingHow is selectivity designed?
31–32Laplace transformTransients and steady state together
33–34Fourier series and transformArbitrary waveforms
35Two-port networksCircuits as black boxes

The last is closest to this set: Problem 5's equivalent circuit is a two-port, and Set 35 will show that its four parameters are one instance of a general description.

A transformer is mutual inductance with the parasitics named. Nothing in this set required physics beyond Set 26's \(v_2 = M\,di_1/dt\) — what it added was a systematic account of what real windings and real iron do to that relation, and a pair of measurements that pins every departure down. The method matters more than the machine: idealise, solve, then add back what was neglected and measure how much it mattered.
AnswerTwo limits give the ideal transformer; four elements restore reality; two tests determine them all. The single-frequency assumption is what Sets 28 onward remove.
Practice

Practice Problems

Work each on paper before opening the answer. The answer is given so you can check yourself; the method is deliberately not.

  1. P1. An ideal 400/100 V transformer feeds a 25 Ω load. Find the primary current.

    Show answer
    \(a = 4\), \(I_2 = 100/25 = 4\) A, so \(I_1 = 1\) A — Problem 1.
  2. P2. For the same transformer, find the impedance seen at the primary.

    Show answer
    \(a^2Z_L = 16(25) = 400\ \Omega\) — Problem 1.
  3. P3. A 20 kVA transformer has 300 W core loss and 500 W full-load copper loss. Find the efficiency at full load, unity pf.

    Show answer
    \(20\,000/(20\,000+800) = 96.15\%\) — Problem 9.
  4. P4. At what load fraction is that transformer most efficient?

    Show answer
    \(x = \sqrt{300/500} = 0.775\), i.e. 77.5% — Problem 10.
  5. P5. An open-circuit test gives 230 V, 2 A, 100 W. Find \(R_c\).

    Show answer
    \(R_c = V^2/P = 52\,900/100 = 529\ \Omega\) — Problem 7.
  6. P6. A short-circuit test gives 60 V, 15 A, 400 W. Find \(R_{eq}\) and \(X_{eq}\).

    Show answer
    \(Z = 4\ \Omega\), \(R = 400/225 = 1.78\ \Omega\), \(X = \sqrt{16-3.16} = 3.58\ \Omega\) — Problem 8.
  7. P7. Why is the OC test done on the LV side and the SC test on the HV side?

    Show answer
    OC needs rated voltage — lower on LV. SC needs rated current — lower on HV — Problems 7 and 8.
  8. P8. A transformer has \(Z_{pu} = 0.05\). Find the terminal fault current in per unit.

    Show answer
    \(1/0.05 = 20\) pu — 20 times rated — Problem 13.
  9. P9. A 10 kVA 2000/200 V unit is reconnected as a 2200/2000 V autotransformer. Find the new rating.

    Show answer
    \(a = 1.1\), so \(a/(a-1) = 11\) and the rating is 110 kVA — Problem 14.
  10. P10. Match a 3200 Ω source to a 4 Ω load. Find the turns ratio.

    Show answer
    \(a = \sqrt{3200/4} = 28.3\), i.e. 28.3:1 — Problem 16.
  11. P11. Why is a delta winding included in most distribution transformers?

    Show answer
    It provides a closed path in which triplen harmonics circulate instead of reaching the supply — Problem 18.
  12. P12. Why does switching a transformer on at a voltage peak avoid inrush?

    Show answer
    The steady-state flux is zero at the voltage peak, so no DC offset is needed — Problem 19.
Challenge

Challenge Problems

Each needs an idea rather than a formula. Decide what the governing principle is before opening the answer.

  1. C1. A 250 kVA, 11 000/433 V transformer gives an open-circuit test (LV side) of 433 V, 9.2 A, 1100 W and a short-circuit test (HV side) of 550 V, 22.7 A, 3200 W. Determine the full parameter set, the efficiency at three loadings, the regulation at 0.8 lagging, and the terminal fault current.

    Show answer
    Ratings. \(a = 11\,000/433 = 25.40\); rated \(I_{HV} = 250\,000/11\,000 = 22.73\) A, \(I_{LV} = 577.4\) A.

    From the OC test (LV side):
    \[ \cos\theta_0 = \frac{1100}{(433)(9.2)} = 0.276, \qquad R_c = \frac{433^2}{1100} = 170.4\ \Omega \]
    \[ I_c = \frac{1100}{433} = 2.540\ \text{A}, \quad I_m = \sqrt{9.2^2-2.540^2} = 8.842\ \text{A}, \quad X_m = \frac{433}{8.842} = 48.97\ \Omega \]
    From the SC test (HV side):
    \[ Z_{eq} = \frac{550}{22.7} = 24.23\ \Omega, \quad R_{eq} = \frac{3200}{22.7^2} = 6.21\ \Omega, \quad X_{eq} = 23.42\ \Omega \]
    Note the test was at 22.7 A against a rated 22.73 A, so scaling the copper loss:
    \[ P_{cu,FL} = 3200\left(\frac{22.73}{22.7}\right)^2 = 3208\ \text{W} \]
    Efficiency:
    LoadpfOutputLosses\(\eta\)
    100%0.80200.0 kW4308 W97.89%
    75%0.85159.4 kW2905 W98.21%
    50%0.90112.5 kW1902 W98.34%
    Maximum efficiency at \(x = \sqrt{1100/3208} = 0.586\), i.e. 58.6% of full load.

    Regulation at 0.8 lagging:
    \[ \mathbf{V}_1 = 11\,000 + (22.73\angle{-36.87°})(6.21+j23.42) \;\Longrightarrow\; \text{reg} = 3.98\% \]
    Per unit and fault current:
    \[ Z_b = \frac{11\,000^2}{250\,000} = 484\ \Omega, \qquad Z_{pu} = \frac{24.23}{484} = 0.0501 \]
    \[ I_{\text{fault}} = \frac{1}{0.0501} = 20.0\ \text{pu} = 454\ \text{A on the HV side} \]
    Compare with the 50 kVA unit of the main set: this machine has \(Z_{pu} = 0.050\) against 0.020, so its regulation is twice as bad (3.98% against 1.94%) but its fault current is only 20 pu against 50 pu. The two are inversely related — a low-impedance transformer holds its voltage well and delivers a ferocious fault current, and the designer must choose between them. That trade-off, not efficiency, usually fixes the impedance of a large transformer.
  2. C2. Two transformers are to operate in parallel: T1 is 100 kVA with \(Z_{pu} = 0.04\) on its own base, T2 is 200 kVA with \(Z_{pu} = 0.05\) on its own base. Find how they share load, and the maximum total load they can carry.

    Show answer
    The trap. Per-unit impedances on different bases cannot be compared. Convert both to a common 300 kVA base using
    \[ Z_{pu,\text{new}} = Z_{pu,\text{old}} \times \frac{S_{\text{new}}}{S_{\text{old}}} \]
    \[ Z_{1} = 0.04\left(\frac{300}{100}\right) = 0.120, \qquad Z_{2} = 0.05\left(\frac{300}{200}\right) = 0.075 \]
    Parallel transformers share load inversely as their impedances — they see the same terminal voltages, so the currents divide as admittances:
    \[ \frac{S_1}{S_{\text{total}}} = \frac{1/Z_1}{1/Z_1+1/Z_2} = \frac{8.333}{8.333+13.333} = 0.385 \]
    \[ \frac{S_2}{S_{\text{total}}} = 0.615 \]
    At the combined rating of 300 kVA:
    UnitRatingWould carryStatus
    T1100 kVA115.4 kVA15% overloaded
    T2200 kVA184.6 kVAUnderloaded
    The limit is set by T1. The maximum total before T1 reaches its rating:
    \[ S_{\max} = \frac{100}{0.385} = 260\ \text{kVA} \]
    Only 86.7% of the combined 300 kVA rating is usable — 40 kVA of installed capacity is stranded because the impedances do not match the ratings.

    The condition for perfect sharing. Each unit carries its rated share when
    \[ Z_{pu,1} = Z_{pu,2} \quad \text{(each on its own base)} \]
    Here 0.04 against 0.05 — the lower-impedance unit hogs the load, and it happens to be the smaller one, which is the worst combination.

    The other conditions for paralleling, all of which must also hold:
    RequirementIf violated
    Same voltage ratioCirculating current even at no load
    Same vector group30° mismatch — large circulating current
    Same phase sequenceEffectively a short circuit
    Equal \(Z_{pu}\)Unequal sharing — this problem
    Same \(X/R\) ratioCurrents not in phase; kVA sum exceeds total
    Only the last two degrade performance; the first three are outright faults.
  3. C3. A transformer rated 400 V, 50 Hz is operated at 60 Hz. Analyse what happens at (a) 400 V and (b) 480 V, and explain why \(V/f\) is the quantity that matters.

    Show answer
    Start from Faraday's law in its transformer form:
    \[ V = 4.44\,f\,N\,\phi_m \;\Longrightarrow\; \phi_m = \frac{V}{4.44fN} \propto \frac{V}{f} \]
    The peak flux depends on \(V/f\), not on \(V\) or \(f\) separately. That single relation governs everything.
    Condition\(V/f\)FluxVerdict
    400 V, 50 Hz (rated)8.001.00Design point
    (a) 400 V, 60 Hz6.670.833Safe — under-fluxed
    (b) 480 V, 60 Hz8.001.00Correct — same flux
    400 V, 40 Hz10.001.25Dangerous — saturation
    (a) 400 V at 60 Hz. The flux falls to 83% of design, so the core is under-utilised:
    QuantityEffect
    Peak flux−17%, further from saturation
    Magnetising currentFalls — \(X_m = \omega L\) rises and flux falls
    Hysteresis loss (\(\propto fB^{1.6}\))×0.90
    Eddy loss (\(\propto f^2B^2 \propto V^2\))Unchanged
    Leakage reactance+20%, so regulation worsens
    kVA ratingUnchanged — set by current, not flux
    The eddy-current result is worth noting: since eddy loss goes as \((fB)^2\) and \(fB \propto V\), it depends only on the voltage. Holding \(V\) constant holds eddy loss constant at any frequency.

    (b) 480 V at 60 Hz. \(V/f\) is restored to 8.00, so the flux is exactly as designed. The transformer operates correctly, and its kVA rating rises by 20% because the same rated current now flows at 20% higher voltage. This is why 50/60 Hz equipment is dual-rated 400/480 V — the two are the same design point.

    The dangerous direction. Running a 60 Hz transformer on 50 Hz at rated voltage raises \(V/f\) by 20%, driving the flux 20% above design and deep into the knee of the magnetisation curve. The magnetising current can rise several-fold, and the core overheats — the same saturation mechanism as the inrush of Problem 19, but sustained rather than transient.

    The general rule. \(V/f\) constant means flux constant. This is exactly the "constant \(V/f\)" control law used in variable-speed motor drives, and for the same reason: the magnetic circuit cares about flux, and flux is set by volts per hertz.
MCQ

Multiple-Choice Questions

Twelve questions in GATE/ESE style. Commit to an answer before opening the explanation.

  1. Q1. A load \(\mathbf{Z}_L\) on the secondary appears at the primary as

    (a) \(a\mathbf{Z}_L\)   (b) \(a^2\mathbf{Z}_L\)   (c) \(\mathbf{Z}_L/a\)   (d) \(\mathbf{Z}_L/a^2\)

    Show answer
    (b) — voltage up by \(a\) and current down by \(a\) — Problems 1 and 2.
  2. Q2. The open-circuit test measures

    (a) copper loss   (b) core loss   (c) total loss   (d) leakage reactance

    Show answer
    (b), because no load current flows — Problem 7.
  3. Q3. The short-circuit test is performed on the HV side because

    (a) it is safer   (b) rated current is smaller there   (c) the core saturates   (d) the meters are cheaper

    Show answer
    (b) — 20.8 A rather than 208 A in the running example — Problem 8.
  4. Q4. Efficiency is maximum when

    (a) the load is rated   (b) copper loss equals core loss   (c) pf is unity   (d) regulation is zero

    Show answer
    (b) — at \(x = \sqrt{P_c/P_{cu}}\) — Problem 10.
  5. Q5. Core loss in a transformer depends principally on

    (a) load current   (b) power factor   (c) applied voltage and frequency   (d) ambient temperature

    Show answer
    (c), through \(V/f\) which fixes the flux — Problems 5 and 12.
  6. Q6. All-day efficiency is lower than ordinary efficiency because

    (a) copper loss rises   (b) core loss is present for 24 h with no output   (c) the pf is worse   (d) the load is unbalanced

    Show answer
    (b) — energised idling produces loss and no work — Problem 12.
  7. Q7. A leading power factor load gives

    (a) higher regulation   (b) lower or negative regulation   (c) no change   (d) higher copper loss

    Show answer
    (b) — the \(X_{eq}\) term reverses sign — Problem 11.
  8. Q8. The per-unit impedance of a transformer is

    (a) different on each side   (b) the same on both sides   (c) always 1.0   (d) equal to the turns ratio

    Show answer
    (b), because impedance and base both scale by \(a^2\) — Problem 13.
  9. Q9. A two-winding transformer reconnected as an autotransformer with \(a = 1.1\) has its rating multiplied by

    (a) 1.1   (b) 2   (c) 11   (d) unchanged

    Show answer
    (c)\(a/(a-1) = 1.1/0.1\) — Problem 14.
  10. Q10. The principal objection to autotransformers is

    (a) low efficiency   (b) high cost   (c) loss of isolation   (d) poor regulation

    Show answer
    (c). An open common winding puts full input voltage on the output — Problem 15.
  11. Q11. An audio transformer's low-frequency limit is set by

    (a) leakage inductance   (b) magnetising inductance   (c) winding capacitance   (d) core loss

    Show answer
    (b) — the shunt branch shorts the signal as \(X_m \to 0\) — Problem 17.
  12. Q12. Running a 60 Hz transformer at 50 Hz and rated voltage

    (a) is safe   (b) reduces the flux   (c) raises the flux and risks saturation   (d) has no effect

    Show answer
    (c)\(V/f\) rises 20%, so the flux does too — Challenge C3.
Formulas

Key Formulas

QuantityRelationNotes
Ideal ratios\(\mathbf{V}_1/\mathbf{V}_2 = a\), \(\mathbf{I}_1/\mathbf{I}_2 = 1/a\)\(a = N_1/N_2\)
Impedance transformation\(\mathbf{Z}_{in} = a^2\mathbf{Z}_L\)Real factor — phase unchanged
emf equation\(V = 4.44fN\phi_m\)\(\phi_m \propto V/f\)
Referring\(V \times a\), \(I \div a\), \(Z \times a^2\)Power invariant
OC test\(R_c = V_{oc}^2/P_{oc}\), \(X_m = V_{oc}/I_m\)Gives core loss
SC test\(R_{eq} = P_{sc}/I_{sc}^2\), \(X_{eq} = \sqrt{Z_{eq}^2-R_{eq}^2}\)Gives copper loss
Efficiency\(\eta = \dfrac{xS\cos\theta}{xS\cos\theta+P_c+x^2P_{cu}}\)\(x\) = load fraction
Maximum efficiency\(x = \sqrt{P_c/P_{cu}}\)Minimum loss \(2\sqrt{P_cP_{cu}}\)
Regulation\(\dfrac{I(R_{eq}\cos\theta \pm X_{eq}\sin\theta)}{V}\)\(+\) lagging, \(-\) leading
All-day efficiency\(\dfrac{\sum E_{out}}{\sum E_{out}+24P_c+\sum x^2P_{cu}t}\)Core loss for all 24 h
Per-unit base\(Z_b = V_b^2/S_b\)Same \(Z_{pu}\) both sides
Base change\(Z_{pu,\text{new}} = Z_{pu,\text{old}}\dfrac{S_{\text{new}}}{S_{\text{old}}}\)At fixed voltage base
Fault current\(I_f = 1/Z_{pu}\) puTerminal short circuit
Autotransformer rating\(\dfrac{S_{\text{auto}}}{S_{2w}} = \dfrac{a}{a-1}\)Conducted fraction \(= 1/a\)
Matching\(a = \sqrt{Z_s/Z_L}\)Broadband, unlike an L-network
Bandwidth\(f_H/f_L = L_m/L_l\)Independent of \(R\)
Parallel sharing\(S_k \propto 1/Z_{pu,k}\)On a common base
Inrush flux\(\phi_{\max} = 2\phi_m + \phi_{\text{res}}\)Worst case: switch at voltage zero
Pitfalls

Common Mistakes

  1. Referring impedances by \(a\) instead of \(a^2\). Check by confirming the power is unchanged — Problem 2.

  2. Mixing referred and unreferred quantities in one equation. Choose a side and stay on it — Problem 2.

  3. Swapping the two tests. OC gives core loss at rated voltage; SC gives copper loss at rated current — Problems 7 and 8.

  4. Using the SC power as core loss or vice versa. The clue is the magnitude: SC power is usually the larger — Problem 8.

  5. Forgetting to scale the copper loss when the SC test was not at exactly rated current — Problem 8.

  6. Assuming efficiency is highest at full load. It usually peaks between 50% and 80% — Problems 9 and 10.

  7. Counting core loss only while loaded in an all-day calculation. It runs 24 hours — Problem 12.

  8. Comparing per-unit impedances on different bases. Convert to a common base first — Challenge C2.

  9. Using \(V_{L}/V_{L}\) as the turns ratio for a Dy or Yd connection. It is the ratio of phase voltages — Problem 18.

  10. Treating \(V\) and \(f\) separately when assessing saturation. Only \(V/f\) matters — Challenge C3.

Looking Ahead

The whole of this set followed one method: idealise, solve, then add back what was neglected and measure how much it mattered. Two limits on Set 26's coupled equations produced the ideal transformer and its three ratios; four elements restored winding resistance, leakage flux, magnetising current and core loss; and two modest measurements — 186 W and 617 W drawn from a 50 kVA machine — determined every one of them. From there the efficiency, the regulation, the per-unit impedance, the fault current and the daily energy loss all followed without further measurement.

The organising rule was simple enough to state in a line: effects that depend on current belong in series, effects that depend on voltage belong in shunt. That places all four elements, explains why the two tests separate cleanly, and explains why a distribution transformer is designed with different loss proportions from a power transformer serving a factory.

Two problems opened cracks in the single-frequency assumption that has held since Set 20. Problem 17 found that a transformer is really a band-pass device, its passband bounded below by magnetising inductance and above by leakage — the two idealisations failing at opposite ends of the spectrum. Problem 19 found that saturation makes the core non-linear, so a sinusoidal voltage no longer produces a sinusoidal current.

Next: Set 28 — Transfer Functions and Bode Plots, where \(\omega\) becomes a variable rather than a constant. The response of a circuit across all frequencies is captured in a single function of \(j\omega\), its poles and zeros are read off directly, and the asymptotic sketching technique that makes frequency response tractable by hand is developed from first principles.